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Share some CCNP 300-115 exam questions and answers below.
When SDM templates are configured, which action must be performed for the configuration to take effect?
A: reload
B: shutdown
C: write memory
D: backup config
Answer: A

Which feature is automatically enabled when a voice VLAN is configured, but not automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is removed?
A. portfast
B. port-security
C. spanning tree
D. storm control
Answer: A


After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup."
What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Answer: A


A network administrator configures 10 extended VLANs ranging from VLANs 3051 to 3060 in an enterprise network. Which version of VTP supports these extended VLANs?
A: version 1
B: version 2
C: version 3
D: VTP does not recognize extended VLANs.
Answer: C


A network is running VTPv2. After verifying all VTP settings, the network engineer notices that the new switch is not receiving the list of VLANs from the server.
Which action resolves this problem?
A. Reload the new switch.
B. Restart the VTP process on the new switch.
C. Reload the VTP server.
D. Verify connected trunk ports.
Answer: D


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Share some Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions 70-533 exam questions and answers below.
Your company network includes an On-Premises Windows Active Directory (AD) that has a DNS domain named contoso.local and an email domain named contoso.com. You plan to migrate from On-Premises Exchange to Office 365. You configure DirSync and set all Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) usernames as %username%@contoso.com You need to ensure that each user is able to log on by using the email domain as the username. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Verify the email domain in Azure AD domains.
B. Run the Set-MsolUserPrincipalName -UserPrincipalName %username%@contoso.onmicrosoft.com -NewUserPrincipalName %username %@contoso.com Power Shell cmdlet.
C. Edit the ProxyAddress attribute on the On-Premises Windows AD user account.
D. Verify the Windows AD DNS domain in Azure AD domains.
E. Update the On-Premises Windows AD user account UPN to match the email address.
Answer: A,B

Your company plans to migrate from On-Premises Exchange to Office 365. The existing directory has numerous service accounts in your On-Premises Windows Active Directory (AD), stored in separate AD Organizational Units (OU) for user accounts.You need to prevent the service accounts in Windows AD from syncing with Azure AD.What should you do?
A. Create an OU filter in the Azure AD Module for Windows PowerShell.
B. Configure directory partitions in miisclient.exe.
C. Set Active Directory ACLs to deny the DirSync Windows AD service account MSOL_AD_SYNC access to the service account OUs.
D. Create an OU filter in the Azure Management Portal.
Answer: B

You manage a cloud service that supports features hosted by two instances of an Azure virtual machine (VM).
You discover that occasional outages cause your service to fail.
You need to minimize the impact of outages to your cloud service.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Deploy a third instance of the VM.
B. Configure Load Balancing on the VMs.
C. Redeploy the VMs to belong to an Affinity Group.
D. Configure the VMs to belong to an Availability Set.
Answer: B,D


You manage a large datacenter that has limited physical space.
You plan to extend your datacenter to Azure.
You need to create a connection that supports a multiprotocol label switching (MPLS) virtual private network.
Which connection type should you use?
A. Site-to-site
B. VNet-VNet
C. ExpressRoute.
D. Site-to-peer
Answer: C


DRAG DROP
You administer a cloud service named contosoapp that has a web role and worker role.
Contosoapp requires you to perform an in-place upgrade to the service.
You need to ensure that at least six worker role instances and eight web role instances are available when you apply upgrades to the service. You also need to ensure that updates are completed for all instances by using the least amount of time.
Which value should you use with each configuration? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct configuration. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.



Answer:

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Share some MCSE MB2-717 exam questions and answers below.
You are working with an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 for sales.
You want to show the sales personnel action carets with reminders for opportunity close dates, activities, reminders for emails that have not been responded to. and statistics on how often sent emails have been opened by recipients.
Which features should you implement in Dynamics 365?
A.Relationship Insights with Auto Capture and Email Engagement
B.Relationship Insights with Relationship Assistant and Email Engagement
C.Relationship Insights with Relationship Analytics and Email Engagement
D.Relationship Insights with Relationship Analytics and Relationship Assistant
Answer: B

You are a sales manager for your company.
In order to improve sales, you want Microsoft Dynamics 365 to analyze the daily actions and communications of your sales staff. In addition, you would like the analysis data to be used to remind your sales people of upcoming activities and create actionable items to keep them focused.
Which feature of Microsoft Dynamics 365 performs these functions?
A.Auto Capture
B.Relationship Assistant
C.Email Engagement
D.Site Map Designer
Answer: A

You are a sales person working in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web interface
You want to create a view that you can use to segment your active customers by area, based on their physical address.
Which three steps must be followed to set up a personal view that you can use without having to create it each time? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A.Use Advanced Find to search both Accounts and Con
B.Save your query, and give it a name.
C.Export the query to Excel, and import it every time ydu need to use it
D.Use Advanced Find to search for alt Account records that are active.
E.Use Advanced Find to filter the records, based on the*r ZIP/Post code.
Answer: B,C

You have recently been hired as a sales assistant for a new employer. The company sales staff uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, and you must occasionally input data for them. You want to use the CRM Help Center for assistance to perform these tasks.Which two help sources are available for you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. phone support
B. training links
C. online chat
D. community biogs
Answer: B,C

An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track Opportunities and Competitors.
They want to make sure that a competitor is always tracked when it is mentioned in an email from a potential customer regarding an opportunity-How can this be achieved using the fewest steps?
A.Instruct users to always manually associate the competitor when the Competitor Mentioned card is shown by the Relationship Assistant.
B.Configure the Relationship Assistant, and check the Card Option for the Competitor Mentioned card to perform the associated action automatically instead of displaying the card.
C.In the configuration for Auto Capture, enable the option to track competitors automatically when mentioned in emails regarding an opportunity.
D.Create a workflow to scan emails for competitor names, and associate the mentioned competitor to the opportunity.
Answer: A

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Share some Cloud Architect E05-001 exam questions and answers below.
What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
A. Can span across multiple physical volumes
B. Can only be created from a single physical volume
C. Must be created across multiple volume groups
D. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently
Answer: A

Which product provides an integrated IT infrastructure solution for data center deployment by combining IT resources into a single package?
A. VCE Vblock
B. EMC VPLEX
C. EMC ViPR
D. VMware vCloud
Answer: A

Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the use of software tools?
A. Quasi-structured data
B. Semi-structured data
C. Metadata
D. Unstructured data
Answer: A

Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Database as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Answer: A

Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its analysis?
A. Semi-structured data
B. Structured data
C. Metadata
D. Quasi-structured data
Answer: A

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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
Which three statements are true regarding RFC 5176 (Change of Authorization)? (Choose three.)
A. It defines a mechanism to allow a RADIUS server to initiate a communication inbound to a NAD.
B. It defines a wide variety of authorization actions, including "reauthenticate."
C. It defines the format for a Change of Authorization packet.
D. It defines a DM.
E. It specifies that TCP port 3799 be used for transport of Change of Authorization packets.
Answer: A, C, D

Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. TFTP
C. manual cut and paste
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP
E. PKCS#12 import/export
Answer: C, E

According ISO27001 ISMS, which of the following are mandatory documents? (Choose 4)
A. ISMS Policy
B. Corrective Action Procedure
C. IS Procedures
D. Risk Assessment Reports
E. Complete Inventory of all information assets
Answer: A, B, C, D

Which three attributes may be configured as part of the Common Tasks panel of an authorization profile in the Cisco ISE solution? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. voice VLAN
C. dACL name
D. voice domain permission
E. SGT
Answer: A, C, D

Which three statements about Cisco Flexible NetFlow are true? (Choose three.)
A. The packet information used to create flows is not configurable by the user.
B. It supports IPv4 and IPv6 packet fields.
C. It tracks all fields of an IPv4 header as well as sections of the data payload.
D. It uses two types of flow cache, normal and permanent.
E. It can be a useful tool in monitoring the network for attacks.
Answer: B, C, E

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data?
A. Client Summary
B. Posture Status Count
C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics
D. Mobility Client Summary
Answer: D

A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network?
A. UNII-3 channels
B. UNII-1 channels
C. 802.11b channels
D. 2.4 GHz channels
E. UMII-2 channels
F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13
Answer: E

A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution?
A. limit of a single device per user
B. restrict allowed devices types
C. allow multiple devices per user
D. minimize client configuration errors
Answer: B

When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point?
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK
C. KCK, KEK, TK
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key
Answer: A

MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support WPA.
B. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional
D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
Answer: C

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Share some Java and Middleware 1Z0-808 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement is true about the switch statement? 
A. It must contain the default section. 
B. The break statement, at the end of each case block, is mandatory. 
C. Its case label literals can be changed at runtime. 
D. Its expression must evaluate to a single value. 
Answer: D

Which statement will empty the contents of a StringBuilder variable named sb? 
A. sb. deleteAll (); 
B. sb. delete (0, sb. size () ); 
C. sb. delete (0, sb. length () ); 
D. sb. removeAll (); 
Answer: C

Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function 
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors 
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions 
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred 
E. Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created 
Answer: A,C,D

Which two statements are true? 
A. Error class is unextendable. 
B. Error class is extendable. 
C. Error is a RuntimeException. 
D. Error is an Exception. 
E. Error is a Throwable. 
Answer: B,C

Which three statements describe the object-oriented features of the Java language? 
A. Objects cannot be reused. 
B. A subclass can inherit from a superclass. 
C. Objects can share behaviors with other objects. 
D. A package must contain more than one class. 
E. Object is the root class of all other objects. 
F. A main method must be declared in every class. 
Answer: B,C,F

Given the code fragment: 
int[] array = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; 
And given the requirements: 
1. Process all the elements of the array in the order of entry. 
2. Process all the elements of the array in the reverse order of entry. 
3. Process alternating elements of the array in the order of entry. 
Which two statements are true? 
A. Requirements 1, 2, and 3 can be implemented by using the enhanced for loop. 
B. Requirements 1, 2, and 3 can be implemented by using the standard for loop. 
C. Requirements 2 and 3 CANNOT be implemented by using the standard for loop. 
D. Requirement 1 can be implemented by using the enhanced for loop. 
E. Requirement 3 CANNOT be implemented by using either the enhanced for loop or the standard for loop. 
Answer: D,E

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network? 
A. UNII-3 channels 
B. UNII-1 channels 
C. 802.11b channels 
D. 2.4 GHz channels 
E. UMII-2 channels 
F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13 
Answer: E

Access points at branch sites for a company are in FlexConncct mode and perform local switching, but they authenticate to the central RADIUS at headquarters. VPN connections to the headquarters have gone down, but each branch site has a local authentication server. Which three features on the wireless controller can be configured to maintain network operations if this situation reoccurs? (Choose three.) 
A. Put APs in FlexConnect Group for Remote Branches. 
B. Set Branch RADIUS as Primary. 
C. Put APs in AP Group Per Branch. 
D. Put APs in FlexConnect Group Per Branch. 
E. Set Branch RADIUS OS Secondary. 
F. Set HQ RADIUS a-s primary. 
Answer: A,E,F

An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data? 
A. Client Summary 
B. Posture Status Count 
C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics 
D. Mobility Client Summary 
Answer: D

MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue? 
A. The client devices do not support WPA. 
B. The client devices do not support CCXv5. 
C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional 
D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller. 
Answer: C

When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? 
A. managing the increase connected devices 
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability 
C. providing device choice and support 
D. enforcing company usage policies 
Answer: D

When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point? 
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key 
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK 
C. KCK, KEK, TK 
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key 
Answer: A

A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN? 
A. PMF 
B. peer-to-peer blocking 
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management 
D. split tunnel 
Answer: A

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two) 
A. services layer 
B. high-speed packet switching O repeater 
C. access control 
D. QoS marking 
Answer: AC

A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? 
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number 
B. MDS-A# show running-config I include serial-number 
C. MDS-A# show host-id 
D. MDS-A# show license host-id 
Answer: D

Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers? 
A. shielded twisted-pair cable 
B. coaxial cable 
C. multimode fiber-optic cable 
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable 
Answer: C

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two) 
A. feature vtp 
B. vtp client mode 
C. vtp VLAN 
D. vtp version 
E. vtp static 
Answer: A,D

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.) 
A. FD00::2 
B. 192.168.2.2 
C. FF05::2 
D. 226.10.10.10 
E. 240.1.0.1 
Answer: CE

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two) 
A. Virtual Port Channel 
B. Layer 3 
C. Virtual Device Contexts 
D. iSCSI 
E. Fibre Channel 
Answer: BC

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card? 
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 5 
D. 6 
Answer: A

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210-060 Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 | Certpark

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A voice engineer is moving an IP phone from one secure Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to another. The phones are not registering to the new cluster. Which task resolves this issue? 
A. reset the phones 
B. restart the phones 
C. delete the CTL file from each phone manually 
D. use the Bulk Administration Tool to import the phones 
Answer: C

A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide? 
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * * 
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # # 
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * * 
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # # 
Answer: C

User A needs to have a line shared on the user B phone. Both phones register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which method can be used from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web pages to configure a shared line on the user B phone? 
A. Navigate to the user B phone > Add the user A DN. 
B. Navigate to the user B phone > Shared Line > Add the user A DN. 
C. Navigate to DN configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN. 
D. Navigate to end user configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN. 
Answer: A

Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.) 
A. partitions 
B. classes of service 
C. search spaces 
D. user templates 
E. schedules 
Answer: B,D

Which component is needed to facilitate the connection between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unified Presence Server? 
A. SIP trunk 
B. H.323 gateway 
C. Gatekeeper 
D. MGCP gateway 
E. Cisco Unified Border Element 
Answer: A

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager plug in allows administrators to proactively monitor the overall health of their Cisco cluster? 
A. RTMT 
B. Cisco AXL Toolkit 
C. Cisco CTL Client 
D. Cisco JTAPI 
E. Cisco TAPS 
Answer: A

A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems? 
A. Show Connection Status 
B. Report A Problem 
C. Advanced Settings 
D. About Jabber 
E. Reset Jabber 
Answer: A

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